Chronology: how old is America?

Decided to share a few chronology related speculations of mine. Chronology is the science of locating historical events in time, they say. As it stands, the narrative compliant chronology is in total disarray. Below are my thoughts. I am not claiming that anything you see below is correct. I did notice a few peculiar details, and ended up playing with some numbers.
  • I will point out a few chronology (number-related) coincidences.
  • I will speculate a lot, because some things are perceived before they get substantiated by proof.
    • I might fall flat on my face in the process.
  • Could it be that both Americas were created/moved into their current positions between 321 and 529 years ago?
    • This is not the main topic of this article, but it does serve as a decent clickbait headline, lol.


Here are some of the dates used:
  • 1492: America (aka the New World) was discovered.
  • 1700: Russian Calendar Reform.
    • 7208: Creation of Peace in the Star Temple, or Creation of the World in the Star Temple.
    • 01/01/1700. Russia awoke that day, not to the year 7208, but to 1700.
  • 376 - 476: The fall of the Western Roman Empire.
  • 1453: The fall of the Eastern Roman Empire aka The Byzantine Empire
  • 1152: The birth of Jesus, per Fomenko.
1000 Added Years
- or 1,000 plus -
Some of us suspect that there was an extra thousand years added to our historical time line. It appears that the so-called "Dark Ages" were made up to "supersize" our history. We have Mr. Fomenko to thank for bringing the issue to our attention. For those marinating in this topic, the problem is undeniable. At the same time there is no consensus on why this extra millennium might have been added to our time line.
  • Contributing factors: j, J, i, I
Fomenko suggested that these letters stood for:
Naturally, 1576 AD would not be equal to I576.
  • 1576 - year 1576 from Jesus
  • I576 - year 576 from Jesus
  • I576 + 1000 = 1576
  • I576 ≠ 1576
The above explanation appears to be working until we run into dates looking like this.

1513.jpg

1747 Source

1127.jpg

1705 Source

1189.jpg

1656 Source

If the PTB chronology is correct, the same should apply for j and J. But I'm not sure it does. Let's take a look at this 1652 map.
1652 Nova Totius Terrarum Orbis geographica ac hydrographica tabula_1_1.jpg

Here is what 1s and 7s look like on the same map.

170.jpg

If this here is year 1587...

1587.jpg

Then what year is this? j615, 7615 or 1615?

j615.jpg

Other similar maps have something like this on:
1492.jpg

To make matters a bit more complicated, I have to offer you the below tables from this book published in MDCLXXXV aka 1685.
  • It's kind of funny, but "I" aka "1" is the only clearly identifiable and consistent figure.

fig1.jpg

fig3.jpg

Life is not gonna get any easier when we move on to coins. The below 1717 coin demonstrates that a familiar looking "1" was clearly known at some point.

East_india_company_half_anna_coin_1717.jpg

Source

Unfortunately, we do not really know when that "some point" happened, for we also have coins with "1s" looking like this.

1717 coin.jpg

Source
Well, and let's not forget about "I's".

1713 1741 coin.jpg

Source (click through coins)

Yet, things are not as clear as they appear to be. Let's turn to "Js". What year is this?
  • Georgius II minted in J737? Why not I737 to signify 1737.

1737-george-ii-coin.jpg

Source

Who knows what year is on the coins below?


Now, when we are clear as mud on coins, let's take a look at this woodcut.
  • "The wedding of the dwarf Yakim Volkov on November 14, 1710 in the palace of Prince A. D. Menshikov in St. Petersburg"
  • The engraving is dated 1711.
It's a mess as you can see. We have some weird symbol (I cannot reproduce) and a letter similar to "j" indicating "1" We also have "J" = "7".

wedding-1.jpg

Source

Will add one more engraving I found on reddit.
  • On the twenty-ninth day of August J782, his Majesty's Ship the ROYAL GEORGE, being on the heel of Spithead overset and sunk; by which fatal accident about nine hundred persons were instantly launched into eternity: among whom was the brave and experienced officer Rear Admiral KEMPENFELT.
ship-1.jpg

Source: Full Image

Here is what it says at the bottom of the image. Are we sure that the image was published shortly after it was created?
  • Why did they use "J" when they clearly could print "1"?
ship-2.jpg

Note: This type of images are dime a dozen. You can easily google-search some out if you want.

What a Mess...
As I see it, if there indeed was some meddling with our chronology, it did not happen overnight. In other words, there had to be a period where two or more chronological systems co-existed. This would have resulted in an overlap of chronological systems.
  • Could it be that, for whatever "post-event" reason, around i475-i492 it was assumed that "i,I,j,J - from Jesus" was "1", and when the mistake was realized, it was too late to get it corrected?
  • Equally, could it be that those with authority did know the true meaning of "i,I,j,J" but chose to adjust our history by adding an extra millennium to the time line?
  • Under what circumstances could either one happen without masses (of people) noticing?
overlap.jpg

We are told that Joseph Justus Scaliger (1540-1609) and a French Jesuit Dionysius Petavius (1583-1652) were the ones who gave us what we have.
  • Scaliger's De emendatione temporum (1583) revolutionized perceived ideas of ancient chronology. It showed that ancient history was not confined to that of the Greeks and Romans, but also comprised that of the Persians, the Babylonians and the Egyptians, hitherto neglected, and that of the Jews, hitherto treated as a thing apart.
    • Scaliger succeeded in reconstructing the lost Chronicle of Eusebius - one of the most valuable ancient documents, especially valuable for ancient chronology. This he printed in 1606 in his Thesaurus temporum, in which he collected, restored, and arranged every chronological relic extant in Greek or Latin.
  • Petavius had inserted some masterly dissertations on chronology; in 1627 he brought out his De doctrina temporum, and later the Tabulae chronologicae (1628, 1629, 1633, 1657).
    • It surpassed Scaliger's De Emendatione temporum (Paris, 1583), and prepared the ground for the works of the Benedictines.
An Opinion: If i564, or j564 were indeed meant to mean year 564 and not 1564, we won't find much of the original meaning after (approximately) the narrative compliant year 1475. After ~1475 (=i475) the adjustments started being made. Book and archive burnings ensured that very little evidence of meddling survived. By the time Scaliger came about, he simply improved the new narrative.
  • Old: i, I, j, J were still used as intended and meant "year from Jesus".
  • Mixed:There were still plenty of texts, but a new doctrine started to form.​
  • Fixed: After approximately 1700, the new narrative was getting actively pushed into masses. Some still knew their history, but numbers were quickly diminishing.​
Unfortunately, the oldest printed texts we see are dated with late 1500s. And those are very hard to read. Imho, some of the pre-1475 narrative noncompliant printed books were copied by hand, and turned into narrative compliant copies of the non-existent originals.
  • With coins, things were a bit harder to adjust... or so it seems.
Look at the font complexity of the 1454-55 Gutenberg Bible. This is allegedly the earliest major book printed using mass-produced movable metal type (in Europe, of course). Who in the sane state of mind could dream up this sophisticated typeface to start a book printing business with, when progressing from hand-written texts? But...
  • Between 1436 and 1450 Johannes Gutenberg developed hardware and techniques for casting letters from matrices using a device called the hand mould.
  • Gutenberg's key invention and contribution to movable-type printing in Europe, the hand mould, was the first practical means of making cheap copies of letterpunches in the vast quantities needed to print complete books, making the movable-type printing process a viable enterprise.
  • Source
Gutenberg_Bible.jpg

Source
Compare to the typeface used in 1681. Which one would you rather make a hand mould for 400-500 years ago?
  • By the way, these two typefaces are ~230 years apart.
  • Were they regressing, or what?
text 168.jpg


1492, 7208 and 1700
Methinks, these dates are pretty significant. On one hand we have 1492 aka the year Mr. Columbus (allegedly) discovered Americas. On the other hand we have Russians waking up to the year 1700. Yet, they have never experienced year 1699. Why? Because when they went to bed on the 31st of December, their year was 7207. They never woke up to the year 7208 due to the calendar reform. What's the common denominator there?
  • Columbus discovered the "New World" in 1492
  • In 1700 in Russia they would have had year 7208 from the "Creation of the World in the Star Temple".
  • Naturally we have a "New World" and a "Created World".
peter-col.jpg


A Star Temple
As it was mentioned prior, the Russians used to count their years from the "Creation of the World in the Star Temple". Noone really knows what that means. As such, it is open to interpretation. The below image is indicative of my interpretation of the "Star Temple". Methinks, the "Temple" could mean our Terrarum.

enoch-dome.jpg

Source

It appears that we have the following:
  • Year 7208 "from the creation of the World in the Star temple" equals...
  • Year 1700 from Jesus
This is the point where I would like to bring up this 1492 (allegedly) map of the world authored (allegedly) by Martin Behaim.
  • I understand that most of you have seen this map before.
    • I also know that some of you did not see the version with additional lands up north.
    • And most of us have never considered the fact that the map is incomplete due to being cut off at the top.
      • Where is the rest of the map?
It's pretty obvious that this map does not have neither North nor South American continents on it. The reasons could be self-explanatory. The "New World" was yet to be discovered.

1492
Martin_beh-map.jpg

Source
Well, what if both Americas were indeed depicted on the above map, and in 1492 or i492 were somehow moved to their current position?
  • Hence, Atlantis/Hyperborea ended up getting sunk/moved, to a new location.
  • I understand that it sounds uber ridiculous, but it was not me who said that truth was stranger than fiction.
Martin_beh-map2.jpg

I'm not suggesting that something of this magnitude happened overnight. It might have taken years... may be tens of years. An event of such proportions could have been accompanied by some major surface catastrophes, cataclysms and calamities.
bkx.jpg

d1.jpg

I suspect that what you see below, did not happen during the suggested span of 1,260 years. Methinks that all these different cataclysms happened within a relatively short period of time.
  • 641 - 381 = 225 years? But... and it is my personal opinion, we are talking about less than a 75 year span.
  • On a separate note, after reading the below, our year 2020 does not look that bad.
bk1.jpg

bk2.jpg

bk3.jpg

bk4.jpg

This here is my favorite one. Those narrative compilers had to be super bored to come up with such bullshit.
  • Prince Popiel ІІ was a legendary 9th century ruler of the West Slavic tribe of Goplans and Polans and the last member of the pre-Piast dynasty, the Popielids.
  • As the story goes, a throng of mice and rats (which had been feeding on the unburnt bodies of Popiel's uncles) rushed into the tower, chewed through the walls, and devoured Popiel and his wife alive.
popiel-2.jpg

What would the outcome of something like that result in? This?

ruins of rome 1.jpg

Source

Heck, who knows? May be it looked like this...

The Great Boston Fire of 1872-1.jpg

Source

An explanation: I'm suggesting that the "New World" discovered by Columbus and the "Creation of the World in the Star Temple" were the same event. If this was indeed the case, it would mean that:
  • Year 1492 = Year 1700 = Year 7208.
An alternate way to present the above dates looks like this:
  • Year i492 = Year 1700 = Year 7208.
I think that year 492 was counted from Jesus, and year 1700 (being post-Scaligarian) already had an extra 1,000 years incorporated into it. I will jump ahead and proceed with the following speculations:
  • 1700 - 1492 = 208
  • 700 - 492 = 208
  • Year 7208 was in reality Year 208 from "Creation of the World in the Star Temple".
    • Year 7208 was interpreted incorrectly, and figure "7" suffered a fate similar to the one figure "1" did, when it was "confused" with "a letter". Or the other way around, a letter was confused (or intentionally misrepresented) with a figure.
To reemphasize: The discovery of America by Columbus and the "Creation of the World in the Star Temple" was the same event.
  • The reason they had to discover America was due to America not being there prior to 475-492.
Note: This is where we have to take a closer look at a few dates.
  • 7208 - the Creation of the World in the Star Temple
  • 475 - the Fall of the Western Roman Empire
  • 1453 - the Fall of the Eastern Roman Empire
  • 1492 - the Discovery of America
  • 472 - the eruption of Vesuvius
  • 1482 - the eruption of Vesuvius
  • 1631 - the eruption of Vesuvius
Year 7208 (format)
- From the Creation of the World in the Star Temple -​
Russia used the Byzantine calendar up to 1700. But... no Byzantine calendar sources mention "The Creation of the World in the Star Temple". These pages do, but none appear to be official.
The Byzantine calendar was the calendar used by the Eastern Orthodox Church from c. 691 to 1728 in the Ecumenical Patriarchate.
  • It was also the official calendar of the Byzantine Empire from 988 to 1453 and of Kievan Rus' and Russia from c. 988 to 1700.
  • Used in other areas of the Byzantine commonwealth such as in Serbia.
    • Note: Since Byzantine is a historiographical term, the original name uses the adjective "Roman" as it was what the Eastern Roman Empire continued calling itself.
    • LOL, how convenient.
There are many post-1700 coins dated using Cyrillic Numerals. Where are all pre-1700 Russian coins dated in a similar manner?

cyr-alph-1.jpg

To evaluate a Cyrillic number, the values of all the figures are added up: for example, ѰЗ is 700 + 7, making 707. If the number is greater than 999 (ЦЧѲ), the thousands sign (҂) is used to multiply the number's value: for example, ҂Ѕ is 6000, while ҂Л҂В is parsed as 30,000 + 2000, making 32,000.
  • As far as I understand, we would need a coin dated with a number starting ҂Ѕ.
  • Every single coin I've see so far starts with ҂A, similar to the 1704 aka ҂AѰД one below.
    • For example, a coin dated with 6873 would have ҂ЅѾOГ on it. Not sure if I got it right.
    • Where are all these coins from 6000s?
Cyrillic-Dates-on-Russian-Coins.jpg

In the process ran into the below page.
  • The reign of Peter the Great (1696-1725)
  • Until 1718, the year of minting on coins was indicated using the Cyrillic number system based on the alphabetical notation of numbers using the Cyrillic or Glagolitic alphabet (Table 1).
  • Starting in 1718, they began to switch to Arabic numerals.
tr-8.jpg

This is like real bizarre.
  • I can't find any Russian pre-1700 dated coins.
  • I can't find any Russian book printed before 1700 and dated with a number starting with ҂Ѕ.
  • How do we know that this ҂ has anything to do with thousands?
  • May be @Cemen could help out with images of pre-1700s coins and/or documents.
Year: 475 = i475 = 1475?
I will start by saying that 475 is a very important year but it is also an approximate one. In my understanding, this year 475 from Jesus (whatever or whoever Jesus really was) falls within a range. I do not know the +/-, could be 50, or 75, or 100.

Those who follow me are aware that I share an opinion of the so-called Ancient Rome being grossly misrepresented. Yet, something did happen around 475 AD. The narrative insists that it was the gradual fall of the Western portion of the Roman Empire, with the official date of its dissolution being 476 AD.
  • And a millennium long Dark Ages period descended upon Europe.
    • Collapsed in 475 AD.
  • Yet somehow, the Eastern side survived and lasted a millennium longer.
    • Collapsed in 1453 AD.
comparison.jpg

One wouldn't have to be a brainiac to suspect that 475 AD and 1453 AD could either be about 22 years apart, and signified the end of the same historical entity (whatever it was).
  • This assumption requires being familiar with most of the articles present on this blog, or with the topic at hand in general.
This is the point, where some of the older texts could come helpful. Considering that we count from Jesus, I wanted to offer this Book of Revelation analysis done in 1690s.
  • We need to remember that 1690 was well into the post-Scaligarian time frame, and the dates could be off by ~1,000 years.
1693 Book
The contents, for the most part, are well beyond my level of comprehension. It does appear to me that what we have here, contains some sort of a key to the chronology shenanigans.
  • Note: Jehovah is a Latinization of the Hebrew יְהֹוָה‎ Yəhōwā, one vocalization of the Tetragrammaton יהוה‎ (YHWH), the proper name of the God of Israel in the Hebrew Bible and is considered one of the seven names of God in Judaism.
  • What could j or J really stand for?
b1.jpg

b2.jpg

b1-2.jpg

b3.jpg

b4.jpg

b5.jpg

I did read quite a few pages from the above book, and I'm not going to pretend that I understood their calculations. I thought I was close a few times, but that's where it ended. Yet, some things do not require too much brain:
  • How could "that prudent Historian" Socrates note Cyril of Alexandria in his works? Cyril of Alexandria was born 775 years after Socrates died.
  • Year 437 AD - the precise Year from whence the Lord of Times and Seasons thought good to date the beginning of his Times, or Reign.
    • Daniel 2:21 - It is God who alters the times and seasons, and he removes kings and promotes kings. He gives wisdom to the wise and knowledge to the discerning.
    • KD: Not like I'm questioning God here, but... why would God date the beginning of his Times starting with 437 AD?
      • And what could it mean for us and for chronological issues.
      • Could it be that 437 AD = i437 = j1? (Jehovah?)
  • Year 475 AD - the Fall of the Western Emperor.
    • This is the alleged fall of the narrative provided Western Roman Empire.
    • At the beginning of 476 AD, the Eighth King was supposed to come to power.
The Ten Kings of the Bible
I do not believe in prophesies, and I'm far from being religious. I think there are those who know, and those who don't. Imho, the Bible is either a preplanned (by the SkyLab) roadmap, or was written after the events took place. For what it's worth...

Revelation 17:9-11.
  • 9: This calls for a mind with wisdom: the seven heads are seven mountains on which the woman is seated;
  • 10: they are also seven kings, five of whom have fallen, one is, the other has not yet come, and when he does come he must remain only a little while.
  • 11: As for the beast that was and is not, it is an eighth but it belongs to the seven, and it goes to destruction.
Daniel 7:23-24.
  • 23: Thus he said: 'As for the fourth beast, there shall be a fourth kingdom on earth, which shall be different from all the kingdoms, and it shall devour the whole earth, and trample it down, and break it to pieces.
  • 24: As for the ten horns, out of this kingdom ten kings shall arise, and another shall arise after them; he shall be different from the former ones, and shall put down three kings.
It is my understanding that noone really knows who these seven kings were, let alone who the eighth (9th and 10th) was supposed to be.
  • Speculations are abundant: one, two, three, four, etc.​
  • To be honest, this stuff sounds like a child paraphrasing a technical manual he/she does not understand. Then the rest of the world is trying to recreate the technical manual based on the produced mumbo-jumbo. There we go...
b2-3.jpg

For myself, I see the following:
  • Something happened... in 400s AD or 1400s or i400s or j400s
    • Western Roman Empire collapsed in 475 AD (possibly in i475 or 1475)
    • Eastern Roman empire collapsed in 1453 (possibly in i453 or 453 AD)
  • America was gifted to us in 1492 (possibly in i475 or 475 AD)
  • The printing press invented in Europe in 1440s (possibly in i440s or 440s AD)
  • 450s AD (and slightly beyond) were one endless cataclysm
  • Vesuvius erupted in 472 AD (possibly in 1472 or i472 or 1482 or i482 or 482 AD)
  • Peter the Great possibly accepted the standard in 1492 (possibly in i492 or 492 AD)
  • Etc, etc, etc...
And all of this was followed up with the emergence of the Capriccio Ruin depicting Art.

Event Overlapping: 1400s with 1600s
I suspect that most of the events that took place in 1400s and in 1600s happened during the span of the same 100 years. The best worded argument supporting this notion will obviously be this article:
  • X-185 Chronology: Another mental map for the discovery of America
  • The official year 1520 corresponds to the year 1705 real, and coincides with four capital episodes:
    • 1) with the previous stage to the fall of the headquarters of Rhodes of the Order of Saint John, heir of the Order of the Temple of Solomon:
    • 2) with the beginning of the European fight for the control of Italy, Rome and the Crown of the Spanish; 3) with the taking of possession of Mexico, by Cortés (which would be the Count of Ribagorça and Cortés, imperial blood from Constantinople, from Laskaris Comnenus family, leaders from the Constantinian Order of Saint George); and
    • 4) with the beginning of the so-called Christian Schism of the West, which began in 1520 (1705) with the work The captivity of Babylon, written by Martin Luther.
  • The official year 1540 corresponds to the year 1725, and it coincides with the founding of the Society of Jesus, which in a few decades directs the reconstruction of history with the collaboration of the main imperial headquarters of Europe, North Africa, Middle East, Persia, India, China, Japan and America. This production fills the history books with the imaginary of the 16th and 17th centuries, all of them books published from then on but with dates sent to the past.
  • In 1725 the Treaty of Vienna is agreed, which ends decades of struggles throughout Europe. The agreements become a global pact that legitimizes the distribution of half the world between the recently recreated European states. The Society of Jesus was created then, not before, and its main business was to spread the Messianic Bible and reconstruct history by reconciling all the calendars of the world.
Personally, I do not think one can quantify the exact number of years during the overlapping - MIXED - period. I think the dates of various "one and the same" type of events were adjusted independently. These, probably, belong in there too.
  • Pompeii Destruction: 1482 and 1631 - 149 years apart.
    • In fake years we get 1631 - 482 = 1,149 years
      • 1,149 years is close to 1,152 (the Birth of Jesus per Fomenko)
    • This event was very popular. It has two additional dates - 79 AD and in 472 AD.
  • Columbus vs Peter the Great: 1492 and 1700 - 208 years apart.
Additionally, if "i, I, j, J" do signify an extra 1,000 of years, but Jesus was indeed born in 1,152 AD...
  • Wouldn't we get "+152 years" to the time line?
And then, we possibly have these 222 years over 1,000 to consider.
  • I am not sure whether these speculative calculations are somehow related to the X-185 issue. Unfortunately, I do not have enough biblical knowledge to dismiss these 222 years. I am not a Biblical scholar and calculation pertaining to Gentile Months are beyond my abilities.
  • The Gentile Times Reconsidered
g1-1.jpg

Source

I created a possible timeline, but then realized that it was off, and I do not mean the spacing between events. Because of this X-185 factor, we do not really know what happened when. When 1540=1725, 1482=1631 and 1491=1699, it's virtually impossible to place most of the 15-17th century events on the time line. I will publish it purely because of the 869 years of somewhat known history we have.
  • I was gonna create another timeline with the Birth of Jesus at Year Zero, but that's where the above donned on me.
ch-1.jpg


Queen Christina
Christina, a member of the House of Vasa, was Queen of Sweden from 1632 until her abdication in 1654. Christina abdicated her throne on 6 June 1654 in favor of her cousin Charles Gustav.
1626 – 1689
405px-Queenchristine.jpg

Source
Why do we have some Queen of Sweden included in this article? Here is why:
    • The painting represents the Carousel organized in Palazzo Barberini in honor of the Queen Christina from Sweden, who had come to Rome in 1655 after her conversion into Catholicism and the renunciation at the crown.
    • The event is described with extraordinary attention to detail, giving each of the many characters a surprising individuality.
It is important to remember that it was an actual event "described with extraordinary attention to detail" by Filippo Gagliardi and Filippo Lauri.
  • This is not some made up event. We are being told that it actually happened.
  • Are "those" real, or dressed up/artificial?
    • I am not quite sure what the meaning of "Carousel' was in 1656.
Question #1: Who could this be?
  • Version #1: Christ
  • Version #2: Antichrist
  • Verion #3: Role playing
carousel-1.jpg

On the above image we clearly have the the ancient Roman god Janus. He is the god of beginnings, gates, transitions, time, duality, doorways, passages, frames, and endings.
What beginnings, transitions and endings did we have in 1656 AD, and what kind of accurate depiction of a real event is this?
  • Check this dragon looking thing out? Did they have the real thing out there?
carousel-2.jpg

The above event was dated with 1656. What could be the uncorrupted date of this event (with the birth of Jesus serving as a count off starting point)?
  • 1656 = i656 = 656 AD?
  • 1656 - 1152 = 504 AD?
  • i656 - 185 = 471 AD?
  • i656 - 208 = 448 AD?
QUESTION: We didn't miss out on the Millennial Kingdom, didn't we?




KD: I'm back to square one as far as our chronology goes. What year is it today? Anyways, I'm done. Please feel free to contribute.
 
I’ve read this thread several times, it’s great, and it’s been in the back of my mind. One of my hobbies is guns, and I happened to snag a nice Turkish Mauser last weekend. The history of this particular karabiner dates back to the late 1800s, and they’ve been chambered in many different sizes over the years. It’s my first firearm in the obscure caliber of 7.92x57, or commonly 8mm. These rounds have tons of different names with different letters appended. Doing a little deep dive into sourcing some period and chamber correct ammunition, I stumbled upon this explanation:

“The ‘J’ in the name stands for ‘Infanterie.’ The ‘J’ is due to a mistake resulting from the previous use of gothic letters in Germany and has no significance regarding bullet size.” Font confusion early on stuck in some parts, not in others.​

The gun was widely in service from 1871-1945. I’m not necessarily speaking to the context (wars, germany, etc)… but just to the fact that funny business with i and j has been happening as recently as 100yrs ago!
 

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