Patagonian Giants. What was their fate?

KorbenDallas

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Wanted to share some of the contents of a 30 page book pertaining to the Patagonian Giants. The book was written in 1766 by a certain S.T. Essentially this is a 30 page letter written by an unknown person to an unknown friend.

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  • Patagonian giants were a race of people, who first began to appear in early European accounts of the then little-known region and coastline of Patagonia. They were supposed to have exceeded at least double normal human height, some accounts giving heights of 12 to 15 feet (3.7 to 4.6 m) or more. Tales of these people would take a hold over European concepts of the region for some 250 years.
  • In 1579, Francis Drake's ship chaplain, Francis Fletcher, wrote about meeting very tall Patagonians, of "7 foote and a halfe".
    In the 1590s, Anthony Knivet claimed he had seen dead bodies 12 feet (3.7 m) long in Patagonia.
    Also in the 1590s, William Adams, an Englishman aboard a Dutch ship rounding Tierra del Fuego, reported a violent encounter between his ship's crew and unnaturally tall natives.
  • In 1766, a rumour leaked out upon their return to the United Kingdom that the crew of HMS Dolphin, captained by Commodore John Byron, had seen a tribe of 9-foot-tall (2.7 m) natives in Patagonia when they passed by there on their circumnavigation of the globe. However, when a newly edited revised account of the voyage came out in 1773, the Patagonians were recorded as being 6 feet 6 inches (1.98 m) - very tall, but by no means giants.
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The book is pretty short, so I'm not going to paraphrase a short story you can read yourself. The questionable existence of the Patagonian Giants in the past is well known. The reason I'm sharing this publication is not the actual Giants, but their possible future at the time. If the author's views and opinions were shared by the 18th century TPTB, the Giants were doomed.

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The Giant's Future
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The Giants History
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KD: Well, those were personal views and opinions of a person who projects an appearance of a government official. Could it be that we ended up annihilating the entire nation of the Patagonian Giants?
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HulkSmash

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Have to admit, that letter got me pissed off. Talk about arrogance. I shouldn't be surprised by the Manifest Destiny type stance this prick had, but it still gets my goat. "they should be lamed and maimed, and have their spirits well broken..." evidence of pure evil. Apparently things haven't changed all that much. Ugg is right...
 

Obertryn

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What's with the letter swapping out every "s" for an "f"? I know that back then, there supposedly weren't any strict rules on grammar and spelling, so you could write however the hell you wanted but in light of that, the consistency of replacement is still odd.
 

HulkSmash

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What's with the letter swapping out every "s" for an "f"? I know that back then, there supposedly weren't any strict rules on grammar and spelling, so you could write however the hell you wanted but in light of that, the consistency of replacement is still odd.
and a little thing I have noticed in this letter and many others read from the time period, when there is a double 's' in the word, the first one is written as a flared 'F' type letter, and then the second one is a normal 's'. Looks stupid if you ask me.
 

Banta

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Parts of that racist scribe is just really telling and shows the hubris of some men. Upon finding a race of undoubtedly physically superior beings, the primary consideration is how to get them into servitude! Even less comforting is the knowledge that this philosophy (of any good Christian says the author) is still prevalent today and not confined to the writings of our "backwards" ancestors..

As for the "f" for "s"… probably needs it's own thread, if I'm interpreting the rules here correctly. Briefly though, it's one of those things (all things?) that no one really knows. I suspect it had a religious background, like a grammar tribute so to speak, but I don't have a lot to back that up. Good news is that the consensus is, uh... varied:


In old English text was an 's' written as an 'f'?

Jacqui Mchale, Adelaide, Australia

[*]It wasn't; it was just written differently according to its position in the word. The f-like s (like an f without the crossbar) was a tall variant used at the start or in the middle of a word, which the modern s was used at the end or after a tall s. This practice was obviously too complicated to survive, for it died out hundreds of years ago - although the Celtic s looks like a Celtic f without the crossbar to this day; and in Greek a different form of the letter sigma (the Greek s) is used at the end of the word; so there's nothing funny about it, it's just unfamiliar to us. (BANTA: this is definitely not always true, though it is on occasion. Damn world, not offering singular reasons!!)

Keefe O'Brian, Rathlin Is
[*]Because western printing conventions originated in Germany where the symbol is still used to indicate the sibilance now represented in English with a double S.

Peter Brooke, Kinmuck Scotland
[*]It was to distinguish between a hard 's' and a soft 's'. The 'f' represented the soft 's' which is why you will find it spelt 'houfe' and 'houses' in old English texts.

Jenny, Cambridge
[*]The first answer above is right, but it persisted well into the 18th Century. I have a family book with dated manuscript entries by my forbears and the name Mary Wass, written Mary Wafs (where my f represents the long s) is entered in 1782

Clem Vogler, Dereham United Kingdom (Great Britain)
[*]I have a pamphlet dated 1872, printed in the US, which has the f and s duality. It obviously persisted for some length of time.

Reg, Palestine US
[*]I have Vol 1 and 2 "Rise and Progress of the Colonies of South Carolina and Geirgia" 1779. Author:Alexander Hewat. Throughout the text the following occur: short is shown as fhort. sent is shown as fent. seised is shown as seifed. ship is shown as fhip. stand is shown as ftand these is shown as thefe. justly is shown as juftly wherever a double s occures within a word it is shown as ff as in oppreffion. It appears the the f is used at the begining and end of a word and within the word except when the word ends in ss and then it is written a fs. Just to confuse things Spain is shown as Spain, Lords as Lords and society as society. forry I am more confufed than ever.

Brian, Melbourne, Australia
Why in old English text was an ''s'' written as an ''f''? | Notes and Queries | guardian.co.uk
 

HulkSmash

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I found this interesting:

The name Patagonia is said to be derived from Patagones, as the Tehuelche Indians, the region’s original inhabitants, were called by 16th-century Spanish explorers. According to one account, Ferdinand Magellan, the Portuguese navigator who led the first European expedition into the area, coined that name because the appearance of the Tehuelche reminded him of Patagon, a dog-headed monster
 

Maxine

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And these hundreds "Exposition" cities could have probably been these giants's cities! And also most of the the old still standing cities today, it's just now they have been changed drastically by today, well besides the buildings that have antique architecture like Washington's senate building or white house building and e.t.c.
 

BStankman

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What's with the letter swapping out every "s" for an "f"? I know that back then, there supposedly weren't any strict rules on grammar and spelling, so you could write however the hell you wanted but in light of that, the consistency of replacement is still odd.
Read enough of these books and it will eventually become a second language to you.
I would theorize when they found movable type from a prior reset, there weren't enough S's to meet the current language needs.
Not having the means to reproduce the technology yet, they just substituted the f's. And started a style trend.

This letter is a rare and fantastic insight into the minds of the controllers prior to the 1812 reset.
And their designs on American Tartary.

25843


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Colon cemetery in Havannah makes more sense now.


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