How Fast Has Language Really Evolved? A Select Comparison of Eurasian Languages

UnusualBean

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I've noticed a weird trend when it comes to nouns and pronouns, and I'm curious if any others here have noticed. I'm sure if you haven't, you'll pick up on it pretty quick here.

English (generally applicable to Indo-European languages)
He - A neutral word stemming from the same origin as "this", which is taking on an increasingly masculine interpretation.
She - A feminine inflection of "he".
Son - A word that seems like it used to be neutral, but is now masculine, that stems from the neutral "give birth".
Daughter - A feminine word that nobody actually knows the origins of, so they just decided it might have something to do with milk. Maybe (y)
Man - From the neutral word meaning "human being". Mostly masculine these days.
Woman - Essentially "female human being".
Boy - Supposedly originally stemming from the masculine "brother", for some reason it used to be widely used to mean "young servant".
Girl - A previously gender neutral word that just meant "child". It magically appeared during the same time "boy" was being used to mean "servant", and nobody knows where it came from. It might've been a brand new word.
Knave girl - Old word for a male child, with "knave" being a neutral or masculine "youth" at the time. So, basically "child child".
Gay girl - Old word for a female child, basically "lively/joyful child".
Actor - A neutral word that means "one who does".
Actress - A feminine modification of "actor".

Japanese
彼 - A neutral word that both means "that over there/yonder" (with a different pronunciation) and functions as a pronoun that's taking on an increasingly masculine interpretation.
彼女 - Literally just tacking "female" onto the end.
息子 - A common word meaning "son" that literally means "begotten child".
息女 - An uncommon word meaning "daughter" that literally means "begotten female".
郎 - A character meaning "son" commonly used in names, originally meaning "young person".
娘 - The common word meaning "daughter", which is pronounced in a way that shows it's derived from "begotten female", but the character itself seems to be a combination of 女郎, which means "female young person".
男 - Meaning "male", the character is borrowed from Chinese, but for some reason the pronunciation seems to stem from "young child".
女 - Meaning "female", the character is also borrowed from Chinese, and again it seems to stem from "young female"... except even weirder, the "female" part seems to come from Chinese. What did they call females in Japan before??
少年 - An originally neutral word meaning "a youth" that's taking on a masculine interpretation, it literally means "few years".
少女 - A word meaning "young girl" that's had the neutral "year" from above replaced with "female". Yes I know that makes it "few female", but just go with it.
俳優 - Meaning a gender neutral "actor", this seems to basically be "actor actor", with the first "actor" having the nuance of being funny, and the second "actor" having the nuance of being excellent.
女優 - Meaning "actress", this has the initial "actor" in "actor actor" from above replaced with "female".

Korean
후사 - A word that originally meant "successor" or "descendant", it came to be a way to mean "son" in Korean somehow. I'm unaware of a female equivalent, and the common words for "son" and "daughter" in Korean have unknown origins.
I didn't include any other words for Korean because many either had unknown origins or were identical to Japanese.

Chinese
他 - An originally neutral word stemming from "other" that is mostly used as a male pronoun these days. Note that the bit on the left side of the character means "person".
她 - Pronounced identically with the above, but with the part meaning "person" replaced with "female". Supposedly this change was influenced by European languages' use of gendered pronouns.
兒子 - Meaning "son", this is very similar to Japanese, except instead of "begotten child" it basically means "child child".
女兒 - Meaning "daughter", this basically means "female child".

And of course many more examples exist. If anybody speaks any other Asian languages, or other languages from around the world even, I'd love to know if they follow the pattern.

Interestingly, there are a few words I ran across that seem to have always been separate, like "male" and "female" in Chinese (although "male" was, once again, probably gender neutral, and "female" was literally just the pictogram for "mother" without nipples because that makes sense). It seems like the majority of non-family words, and even a number of family words, were originally ungendered across languages, though. They started neutral and then became gendered (usually male), and a word was created for the other gender (usually female).

And that's not even taking into account grammatical gender! o_O

Apparently in Proto-Indo-European it's thought that the original "genders" were animate and inanimate, reflecting people's spiritual views at the time. As monotheism began to take over, the genders changed to forms we can recognize today: Masculine, feminine, and neutral. That's how a chair can be a lady in France :geek:

The word genderizing of East Asian languages seems to have happened during a time period that's seriously at risk of becoming a meme on this forum, the late 19th to early 20th century.

But when did the word and grammar genderizing of Indo-European langauges happen? Or more specifically, when did monotheism really pop off?

Personally, I think the bible in its entirety may be less than 400 or so years old, while the language changes could be up to a couple hundred years older than that. But is that even possible? Could language really change so much in such a short time that it's unintelligible to the layman?

Well, yes.

Dyirbal, an indigenous language in Australia discovered in the early 20th century, took only decades after its discovery to progress from one stage to another (like Old English to Middle English). The grammar had transformed in some very drastic ways, such as dropping from 4 grammatical genders to 3, and dropping an entire system of polite/formal language.

But it's not just small tribes and remote languages. Many older speakers of English have difficulty understanding young speakers in casual conversation due to all of the new vernacular constantly being yeeted at them.

In conclusion, I think the "ancient" forms of languages may be much younger than we've been told, and the hyper-gendering of language may be a recent feature. Was it an intentional one, or an incidental one, I can't say. I don't think the side effects have been beneficial to society, though.
 
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UnusualBean

UnusualBean

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@UnusualBean,

You gotta throw me some pinyin, my Kanji is a bit rusty.
Romaji
彼 - kare (he)/are (that)
彼女 - kanojo
息子 - musuko
息女 - musume
郎 - rou
娘 - musume
男 - otoko
女 - onna
少年 - shounen
少女 - shoujo
俳優 - haiyuu
女優 - joyuu

Romaja
후사 - husa

Pinyin
他 - ta
她 - ta
兒子 - erzi
女兒 - nüer
 

Paracelsus

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I think the "ancient" forms of languages may be much younger than we've been told, and the hyper-gendering of language may be a recent feature. Was it an intentional one, or an incidental one, I can't say. I don't think the side effects have been beneficial to society, though.
I heartily disagree.

Caballero - literally - Mounted gentlemen on horseback. No feminine equivalent.

Mijo - boy

Mija - girl

Abuela - Grandmother

Abuelo - Grandfather

Mujer - woman

Amigo / Muchacho - informal for male friend, "buddy," "pal"

I grew up in Colorado with Mexicans and have picked up enough Spanish by osmosis. None of the male and female pronouns seem artificial or contrived. The sterilized and neutral nature of English does seem to be so.

This post has the feel of some sneaky backdoor feminism to it. Don't try the babe in the woods routine twice.
 
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UnusualBean

UnusualBean

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I heartily disagree.

Caballero - literally - Mounted gentlemen on horseback. No feminine equivalent.

Mijo - boy

Mija - girl

Abuela - Grandmother

Abuelo - Grandfather

Mujer - woman

Amigo / Muchacho - informal for male friend, "buddy," "pal"

I grew up in Colorado with Mexicans and have picked up enough Spanish by osmosis. None of the male and female pronouns seem artificial or contrived. The sterilized and neutral nature of English does seem to be so.
What I'm suggesting is that the evolution of the languages happened on a much shorter, more recent timeline than we've been taught. I don't know if it was artificial or natural evolution.

Regarding Spanish, when it comes to human-referent nouns it follows the same pattern as the others. Neutral terms become gendered (usually masculine), with an extra (usually feminine) term being created to match it.
Mijo is short for mi hijo, and hijo functions as both neutral and masculine. Both hijo and hija come from the same neutral origin meaning "to suckle".
Abuela is the feminization of the supposedly masculine origin word for grandparent, but it may have also just been a neutral "ancestor" type word.
Mujer comes from "soft", the same origin as the English word "mild".
Hombre comes from the same neutral origin as the word "human".
Amigo's and muchacho's origins are murky, but they both function as neutral and masculine.

This post has the feel of some sneaky backdoor feminism to it. Don't try the babe in the woods routine twice.
You've lost me here... Are you sure you haven't mistaken me for somebody else?
 

Paracelsus

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@UnusualBean,
I'm fresh off of reading that Gynoratic Age garbage and this post has the same exact candor of "why does there have to be genders?"

"Apparently in Proto-Indo-European it's thought that the original "genders" were animate and inanimate, reflecting people's spiritual views at the time. As monotheism began to take over, the genders changed to forms we can recognize today: Masculine, feminine, and neutral. That's how a chair can be a lady in France"

How can a chair be a lady? It can't, but it damn well can be a ladys' chair.
Truth in satire.

Language is technology, potent unassuming technology. Masculine words accurately describe men and Feminine words accurately describe women. A new Volkwagen Beetle is girly and a Bugatti Chiron is masculine. I defy you to disagree with that obvious assertion.
 

CyborgNinja

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The word genderizing of East Asian languages
Great post, to clarify are you saying that east asian languages don't gender nouns? Thus they must be a more recent invention?

In my limited experience asian languages in general are very rudimentary. There aren't even plural nouns in Japanese. They have nowhere near the nuance that is found in Indo-ayran languages.

I was under the impression that all romance languages i.e. French, Spanish and Italian spawn from Latin. Any answers to why objects are gendered would presumably be found by looking more closely at Latin.
 

Andromeda

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Daughter could be from the Scandinavian languages dotter/datter. I'm not sure, but the Scandinavian Vikings did arrive the British Peninsula according to the official history. So we have Scandinavian words like:

dale - dal
boat - baat/båt
door - dörr
window - vindu
wind - vind
sea - sjö

And a lot more.
 

Paracelsus

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@Paracelsus You're still not making sense, and that's the second unrelated clip you've posted. Are you intentionally trying to get this thread locked?
And the babe in the woods appears!

A chaise lounge is a French sitting chair typically used by women, Emmanuel Macron, or Justin Trudeau. A wingback chair is the type of chair men would sit in at gentlemen's clubs or hunting lodges.

https://pin.it/x2ajuqumxziez4
https://pin.it/eu6imbsrrxwj53

To express a valid point I'd gladly get this thread locked or even my account terminated.

Don't kid yourself "ancient" languages have declension - Declension - Wikipedia - just the same as modern language. Sanskrit was used to describe abstract concepts like "soul," "energy," or "infinity." The proper name Arjuna or Shiva wasn't gender neutral. Paninis' rules of grammar were extremely formal and regimented in order to achieve very un-ambiguous and highly precise definitions.
 
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UnusualBean

UnusualBean

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Great post, to clarify are you saying that east asian languages don't gender nouns? Thus they must be a more recent invention?

In my limited experience asian languages in general are very rudimentary. There aren't even plural nouns in Japanese. They have nowhere near the nuance that is found in Indo-ayran languages.

I was under the impression that all romance languages i.e. French, Spanish and Italian spawn from Latin. Any answers to why objects are gendered would presumably be found by looking more closely at Latin.
I can't speak much for languages outside of Eurasia unfortunately, but as far as I can find every language always had at least some gendered nouns, especially family-related ones like mother and father. The issue is that Eurasian languages at least seem to have exploded from a low number of gendered nouns and a lack of masculine/feminine gendered grammar into a very high number of gendered nouns and a presence of gendered grammar (not just in Romance languages). Supposedly the bulk of these changes happened in the Indo-European languages 1-2 thousand years ago at least, but that doesn't quite seem to add up.

The East Asian languages changed much more recently, around the turn of the 20th century, thanks to western influence. There were some gendered words already, but there are way more gendered words now.

I wouldn't say Asian languages are rudimentary, but they do lack the flexibility that some of the Indo-European languages have, which can make expressing some things more difficult. Japanese does have plurality though, it's just usually used for living creatures rather than inanimate objects, and it's generally omitted if you're using a number (you would say "two girl" instead of "two girls") because the plurality is implied and they don't engage in a lot of redundancy in Japanese. If it can be cut, it will be cut lol

And the babe in the woods appears!

A chaise lounge is a French sitting chair typically used by women, Emmanuel Macron, or Justin Trudeau. A wingback chair is the type of chair men would sit in at gentlemen's clubs or hunting lodges.

https://pin.it/x2ajuqumxziez4
https://pin.it/eu6imbsrrxwj53

To express a valid point I'd gladly get this thread locked or even my account terminated.

Don't kid yourself "ancient" languages have declension - Declension - Wikipedia - just the same as modern language. Sanskrit was used to describe abstract concepts like "soul," "energy," or "infinity." The proper name Arjuna or Shiva wasn't gender neutral. Paninis' rules of grammar were extremely formal and regimented in order to achieve very un-ambiguous and highly precise definitions.
I'd really love to say that you have a valid point but I honestly can't tell what your point even is, you just keep going in circles insulting me and saying random things that don't make sense or have anything to do with the topic. At this point I'm going to have to respectfully decline to respond to you further until you at least stop being antagonistic.

Daughter could be from the Scandinavian languages dotter/datter. I'm not sure, but the Scandinavian Vikings did arrive the British Peninsula according to the official history. So we have Scandinavian words like:

dale - dal
boat - baat/båt
door - dörr
window - vindu
wind - vind
sea - sjö

And a lot more.
Scandinavian languages are in the Indo-European group, so if you go back far enough you'll find that most of the vocabulary will end up sharing similar roots to English words. Unfortunately that means that dotter shares the same mysterious origin as daughter.
 
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CyborgNinja

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The issue is that Eurasian languages at least seem to have exploded from a low number of gendered nouns and a lack of masculine/feminine gendered grammar into a very high number of gendered nouns and a presence of gendered grammar (not just in Romance languages).
Ok so this is the premise of your post: asian languages have under gone a recent leap in complexity. Specifically gender pronouns.

Right?

So from that what is your idea? That Asians didn't distinguish between male and female? Or that Asians were asexual at some point? What's the punch line to this post?
 

whitewave

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@UnusualBean, I for one appreciate your elucidation regarding differences in language and your ability and willingness to translate/clarify languages whose alphabet/characters I can't even recognize or differentiate.
I also don't see an agenda to the presented information as is assumed by some and I hope you won't also be run off from this site as was the new member whose thread regarding genders was mercilessly derailed, criticized, and eventually locked.

Regarding the various languages, I've never been able to reconcile the biblical story of Babel where a global language was supposedly fractured into the various languages we currently use. I can understand different dialects/pronunciations corrupting a language to the point where it sounds like a different language but the sheer volume of different languages sort of throws a monkey wrench into the whole idea of there once being a united global civilization. I suspect that unraveling the mystery of the origin of language differentiation is the key to unveiling the secrets of our past and the genderization of various languages is a key aspect to unraveling that mystery.
Thank you for your contribution.
 

Paracelsus

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@UnusualBean,

Panini | Learn Sanskrit Online
Sanskrit Dictionary for Spoken Sanskrit

Yeah, I keep on babbling about nonsense like declension or Panini's rules of grammar. Might even start bringing up the correct case form rules of Latin.
Latin Case

Gender is an abstraction of language within the synthetic constraints of language, but, not within reality. It's like one of these bullshit hypotheses.
There's Evidence Humans Didn't Actually See Blue Until Modern Times

Did glaciers, the sky, bodies of water, or lapis lazuli totally escape our vision? Doubtful, highly, highly doubtful. We may have just lacked the vocabulary to accurately describe it, even though it physically existed. Realistically why would cone cells in the retina all of a sudden detect the Ångstrom size of blue light photons after never being capable of such a feat the previous day? Spontaneous evolution?

If you're searching for the lack of gender specificity in certain language schemas, here it is. Weak sexual dimorphism. The more "strapping" and aggressive the males from a given culture, the less ambiguity in gender pronouns. Men build, it's an aggressive act, no bones about it.

But, here's this concept. The Bhagavad Gita and The Veda's are powerful allegories of violence and dominion. Krishna is literally telling Arjuna that it would be weak and "unmanly" to not fight the Kauravas. I can find the exact line and quote it verbatim in both Sanskrit and English to prove the point.

P. 93 of the Georg Feuerstein translation of -
The Bhagavad-Gītā

The Yoga of Knowledge
2.3 Do not adopt unmanliness (klaibya), O son-of-Pritha, for this becomes you not. Give up this base faint-heartedness! Rise, O Paramtapa!

3. klaibyam ma sma gamah partha naitat tvayy upapadyate ksudram hrdayadaurbalyam tyaktvottistha paramtapa

klaibya - derived from the adjective "kliba" meaning emasculated, unmanly, cowardly.
@UnusualBean, I for one appreciate your elucidation regarding differences in language and your ability and willingness to translate/clarify languages whose alphabet/characters I can't even recognize or differentiate.
I also don't see an agenda to the presented information as is assumed by some and I hope you won't also be run off from this site as was the new member whose thread regarding genders was mercilessly derailed, criticized, and eventually locked.
Hey man, one of my posts got ruthlessly locked up - full stop. And I was in no way shape or form proselytizing the drug lifestyle. I take the Erowid.org stance of - informed decisions about psychoactive substances. Big G GOVERNMENT, or Sylvie Iwannowas' "Parasites" were the ones responsible for many of these highly isolated laboratory compounds that in no way, shape or form occur in nature.

As for chasing someone off, I guarantee you there are fistfights on Speakers' Corner - Wikipedia on a fairly frequent basis. Artificially polite discourse is evidence of acceptable argument.
 
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UnusualBean

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To be absolutely clear, I'm speaking of an ancestor language that existed before languages like Latin and Sanskrit when I say that there was no masculine/feminine grammar in the past.


Ok so this is the premise of your post: asian languages have under gone a recent leap in complexity. Specifically gender pronouns.

Right?

So from that what is your idea? That Asians didn't distinguish between male and female? Or that Asians were asexual at some point? What's the punch line to this post?
It seems like I didn't explain myself as well as I thought, so I'll try to do a better job this time:

The premise here is that Eurasian languages have all undergone a dramatic shift from a low (but not absent) amount of gendered language, to a high amount of gendered language, including both vocabulary and gendered grammar in many languages. My idea is that the shift actually happened very rapidly over hundreds of years, not slowly over thousands.

Asian languages, just like European languages, did have some gendered words before the shift. For example, gendered parental terms seem to be universal.

The shift in the Asian languages is really pronounced because it happened not in thousands or even hundreds of years, but in a matter of decades. This change happened directly due to European and American cultural influence beginning in the late 19th century, and even though each language altered itself differently, the changes still followed the same strange pattern that happened all across Eurasia.

The pattern is that neutral terms become masculine (except one I found that became feminine), and new female words are created to be the counterparts. It started with things like "child" being separated into "male child" and "female child" forms, third person pronouns being separated into "male third person" and "female third person" forms (he and she), and it's continuing even to this day with words like the neutral "chairman" being genderized into "chairman" and "chairwoman".

The questions I present are: Why does this pattern exist? Does it exist outside of Eurasia? And, is the pattern driven by human nature, or was it guided?

@UnusualBean, I for one appreciate your elucidation regarding differences in language and your ability and willingness to translate/clarify languages whose alphabet/characters I can't even recognize or differentiate.
I also don't see an agenda to the presented information as is assumed by some and I hope you won't also be run off from this site as was the new member whose thread regarding genders was mercilessly derailed, criticized, and eventually locked.

Regarding the various languages, I've never been able to reconcile the biblical story of Babel where a global language was supposedly fractured into the various languages we currently use. I can understand different dialects/pronunciations corrupting a language to the point where it sounds like a different language but the sheer volume of different languages sort of throws a monkey wrench into the whole idea of there once being a united global civilization. I suspect that unraveling the mystery of the origin of language differentiation is the key to unveiling the secrets of our past and the genderization of various languages is a key aspect to unraveling that mystery.
Thank you for your contribution.
Thank you, I'm honestly kind of just a nerd and I wanted to discuss this very weird pattern I noticed lol

From the evidence it really does seem that some time in the past, all of Eurasia and at least part of Africa and the Pacific spoke the same language, and who knows if it could've really been global? Of course, this question goes way beyond the more recent pattern of language gendering, but it's a very interesting one that I wish I had the resources to really dive into.
 

whitewave

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Yeah, I keep on babbling about nonsense like declension or Panini's rules of grammar. Might even start bringing up the correct case form rules of Latin.
Latin Case

Babble away, brother; I'm open to learning new things. Until you brought it up I thought Panini was a sandwich. :)

Did glaciers, the sky, bodies of water, or lapis lazuli totally escape our vision? Doubtful, highly, highly doubtful. We may have just lacked the vocabulary to accurately describe it, even though it physically existed. Realistically why would cone cells in the retina all of a sudden detect the Ångstrom size of blue light photons after never being capable of such a feat the previous day? Spontaneous evolution?

Now you're just rambling incoherently. The above info in no way addresses the issue of how, when, or why gender specifics entered the language. I personally couldn't care less if an inanimate object is considered male or female but, when you think about it, it is a bit odd to anthropomorphize inanimate objects to the point of assigning genders to them. Who thought that up?

If you're searching for the lack of gender specificity in certain language schemas, here it is. Weak sexual dimorphism. The more "strapping" and aggressive the males from a given culture, the less ambiguity in gender pronouns. Men build, it's an aggressive act, no bones about it.

I admit I don't know what point you're trying to make with this tidbit of machismo but language is important. For example: the Inuit have over 70 words for various types of snow and ice conditions but not one word for war; consequently, they don't have war-there's not a word for that activity so that activity does not exist in their world. By extension (and to the point), if there were no gender specific words in our past languages why would they crop up later? Language is a "living" thing and subject to interpretation of the cultural norms at the time it is spoken/written/read so by exploring the introduction of genderization into the language the question naturally arises: What was going on culturally at the time of gender introduction into the language to warrant its emergence?

But, here's this concept. The Bhagavad Gita and The Veda's are powerful allegories of violence and dominion. Krishna is literally telling Arjuna that it would be weak and "unmanly" to not fight the Kauravas. I can find the exact line and quote it verbatim in both Sanskrit and English to prove the point.

A few cultures in the past have applied the death penalty for acts considered unmanly (homosexuality, desertion in times of war, refusing to fight in a war). I'm not sure how that or the Vedas pertain to the topic at hand but I'm a little slow-witted-perhaps you could explain it to me.

Hey man, one of my posts got ruthlessly locked up - full stop. And I was in no way shape or form proselytizing the drug lifestyle. I take the Erowid.org stance of - informed decisions about psychoactive substances. Big G GOVERNMENT, or Sylvie Iwannowas' "Parasites" were the ones responsible for many of these highly isolated laboratory compounds that in no way, shape or form occur in nature.

And I'll leave you to get back to your psychoactive substances.

As for chasing someone off, I guarantee you there are fistfights on Speakers' Corner - Wikipedia on a fairly frequent basis. Artificially polite discourse is evidence of acceptable argument.
And my point in bringing it up was that when dealing with new members (or anyone, really) it's generally more productive to light a candle than to curse any perceived "darkness". Peace.

@UnusualBean: From the evidence it really does seem that some time in the past, all of Eurasia and at least part of Africa and the Pacific spoke the same language, and who knows if it could've really been global?"

Now this is an interesting point as it helps to narrow down a timeline. We have maps from specific times in history that show Babylon as a still-existing place and coupled with the biblical narrative of Babylon being destroyed and its peoples dispersed due to a sudden change in language we know about how far back to look for the language changes you mentioned. I can't imagine what could be responsible for a sudden language change unless it really was something supernatural. But it gives us a timeframe within which to work.
 
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UnusualBean

UnusualBean

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Now this is an interesting point as it helps to narrow down a timeline. We have maps from specific times in history that show Babylon as a still-existing place and coupled with the biblical narrative of Babylon being destroyed and its peoples dispersed due to a sudden change in language we know about how far back to look for the language changes you mentioned. I can't imagine what could be responsible for a sudden language change unless it really was something supernatural. But it gives us a timeframe within which to work.
Deserts and wastelands are also mentioned in the bible, and I know you've seen this thread.

It's definitely possible for language to evolve super fast, but now I'm left wondering how it could fracture inside the same city like that...
 

Bear Claw

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@UnusualBean, I for one appreciate your elucidation regarding differences in language and your ability and willingness to translate/clarify languages whose alphabet/characters I can't even recognize or differentiate.
I also don't see an agenda to the presented information as is assumed by some and I hope you won't also be run off from this site as was the new member whose thread regarding genders was mercilessly derailed, criticized, and eventually locked.

Regarding the various languages, I've never been able to reconcile the biblical story of Babel where a global language was supposedly fractured into the various languages we currently use. I can understand different dialects/pronunciations corrupting a language to the point where it sounds like a different language but the sheer volume of different languages sort of throws a monkey wrench into the whole idea of there once being a united global civilization. I suspect that unraveling the mystery of the origin of language differentiation is the key to unveiling the secrets of our past and the genderization of various languages is a key aspect to unraveling that mystery.
Thank you for your contribution.
Ever noticed how to the West of Babylon languages read left to right. And to the right of Babylon, languages read right to left. All as if point to the possible location of Babel?
 

sonoman

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In conclusion, I think the "ancient" forms of languages may be much younger than we've been told, and the hyper-gendering of language may be a recent feature. Was it an intentional one, or an incidental one, I can't say.
lets remove the 'time' component and see where it leads us on this.. and pretend that we do not use language but telepathy. also, lets consider we happen to be gender-less beings for this exercise too..

we have fallen from the heavens, crash landed, whatever, onto this earth here where we find a natural habitat that regenerates by masculine/feminine sexuality/intercourse/commerce.

we proceed to learn their language in order to interact with them and find that they use words that describe things, seems only natural that the language they use would also be generative/genderative, right? precisely.

so we learn the language and commence commerce by communicating in their language in order to coexist. we start to see that many of the words they use are not required from our perspective and do not serve our interest as well as theirs. we require transaction/intercourse with them to survive here but their language suits them, not us and so we are limited by it.

we want to go home but we need their help. we devise a plan/agenda to make some changes to their language that are easy to accept when dealing with us so they agree to that but we are still limited to ourselves and we need them to work for our interests more and more.

we also realize how we can replicate within their masculine/feminine nature which we will need to do to get back home. we need their agreement/consent but they do not need us and refuse to work towards our goals since it doesnt serve their purpose.

what to do? we have an agreement with them to use our new words with so we decide to trick them into working for us and so we continue to change the language.

we introduce writing!



I don't think the side effects have been beneficial to society, though.
'society' is one of our new words we tricked them with ;-) see where 'we' are going with this?

now after many generations, we have the advantage and they are starting to realize what has happened and how it happened. the only way they will survive now is to reject our ProGramming language. it has been written and it us running in the background of their minds! the only way to reject it and stop the ProGram is to stop the code! reject the writeousness! re turn to the garden of eden (nature)

461px-Líf_and_Lífthrasir_by_Lorenz_Frølich.jpg


Word to your Mother!

 
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whitewave

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we have fallen from the heavens, crash landed, whatever, onto this earth here where we find a natural habitat that regenerates by masculine/feminine sexuality/intercourse/commerce.
we want to go home but we need their help. we devise a plan/agenda to make some changes to their language that are easy to accept when dealing with us so they agree to that but we are still limited to ourselves and we need them to work for our interests more and more.
So....were we able, via writing, to help them get back home or are they still here?
 

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